LieutenantCamelPerson762
Case study #1 Mr. Robinson is a 92-year-old retired gentleman who…
Case study #1
Mr. Robinson is a 92-year-old retired gentleman who spent a large part of his youth shovelling coal into the engines of steamships. As was the norm among a significant number of people of his time, he also smoked heavily. Mr. Robinson resides in a retirement facility with his wife of 71 years and has been complaining of feeling like he “can’t get his breath”. A few days after complaining, he began to cough up blood-tinged sputum. Mr. Robinson was sent to the emergency department for a chest X-ray and subsequent needle biopsy of a mass discovered in his lung. The biopsy was positive for lung cancer, and Mr. Robinson underwent surgery for the removal of the lower lobe of his right lung. Once in the operating room, the surgeon discovered that Mr. Robinson had extensive metastases to his stomach, liver, and pancreas. Surgical intervention was stopped, and Mr. Robinson was returned to the unit for palliative care.
Questions 1 – 4 refer to this case.
1. Mr. Robinson’s physician orders morphine for pain control. On hearing of this, Mr. Robinson refuses the drug, stating he doesn’t “want to get addicted”. What is the best response from the nurse?
A. “You don’t need to worry, you won’t get addicted”
B. “Many people do become addicted to opioids, but you can’t worry about things like that when you are dying”
C. “Let’s talk more about your concerns about addiction and I can explain to you how we control morphine use in this situation to prevent that.”
D. “I’ll talk to your physician about ordering a different drug for you”
2. Which of the following principles should the nurse keep in mind when scheduling the administration times for the morphine?
A. It is easier and requires less pain medication to prevent pain than to treat pain once it has escalated
B. It is best to wait until the client complains of pain before administering morphine in order to prevent undesired side effects
C. Breakthrough doses of morphine are usually not sufficient to help manage the pain
D. If the client is sleeping in the middle of the night, then they are obviously pain-free and pain medication should be withheld
3. Mr. Robinson’s condition declines rapidly, and the route of his morphine administration is changed to subcutaneous. The order reads: morphine 5 – 10mg SUBQ Q4H PRN, and morphine 2.5 – 5 mg Q2-4H PRN for breakthrough pain. What does the nurse recognize to be true about this order?
A. This is a correct order for palliative care
B. This order is inappropriate as the amount of breakthrough medication is too high
C. This order is inappropriate as the amount of breakthrough medication is too low
D. This order is inappropriate as morphine is not an appropriate drug in palliative care
4. Mr. Robinson has received a few doses of morphine 5 mg. When his next scheduled dose is due, the nurse asks him how he is feeling, and he states his pain level is “5 out of 10”. The nurse decides to give Mr. Robinson 7.5 mg this time. The ampoule of morphine that the nurse selects contains 10 mg/ml. How many millilitres will the nurse administer?
A. 0.75 mg
B. 1.3 ml
C. 7.5 ml
D. 0.75 ml
End of case #1
Case study #2
Mrs. Kwong is taking furosemide once daily PO for her congestive heart failure. Based on her blood work, the doctor has added potassium chloride 20mEq once daily PO.
Questions 5 – 10 refer to this case.
5. Mrs. Kwong asks the nurse how furosemide works. What is the best response from the nurse?
A. Furosemide permits the excretion of sodium and retains potassium, thus increasing the flow of urine output
B. Furosemide permits the excretion of sodium and potassium, thus increasing the flow of urine output
C. Furosemide permits the dilation of blood vessels, thus lowering her blood pressure
D. Furosemide permits sodium reabsorption in the distal tube
6. When is the best time for Mrs. Kwong to receive her furosemide medication?
A. In the morning
B. With meals
C. Before meals
D. At bedtime
7. The nurse is providing information to the client about her medications. What statement by Mrs. Kwong leads the nurse to believe that she has understood the teaching about furosemide?
A. “I will take my pills every three days.”
B. “I will no longer need to reduce my salt intake.”
C. “I will take my pill in the evening.”
D. “I will weigh myself daily.”
8. Mrs. Kwong asks why she must have her serum potassium level checked today. The nurse responds that individuals taking furosemide have their serum potassium checked because furosemide may cause which of the following?
A. The kidneys to decrease the excretion of potassium
B. Increased potassium excretion
C. The body to metabolize potassium more rapidly
D. Increased high levels of potassium to be stored in the liver
9. The nurse is teaching Mrs. Kwong about taking her potassium supplement (Slow K). Which of the following would be appropriate?
A. To take Slow K with orange juice
B. To take Slow K before meals
C. To take Slow K with meals
D. To take Slow K at bedtime
10. Which of the following assessment would the nurse be assessing for as a result of the potassium therapy?
A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Intense flushing
C. Headache
D. Insomnia
End of case #2
Case study #3
Mr. Granger, a 71-year-old man had, until now, been living at home with his wife of 40 years. He was brought by ambulance to the emergency department 3 days ago when his wife noticed he had begun “acting strangely and talking like he was drunk”. Now stable, he has been admitted to a nursing unit with the diagnosis of a right-sided Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA).
Questions 11 – 13 refer to this case.
11. Among other medications, Mr. Granger has an order for warfarin 2.5 mg PO daily. Which of the following would the nurse be assessing for in regards to this drug?
A. Lab values for INR
B. Green coloured stools, indicating gastric bleeding
C. Pulse below 60 beats/minute
D. The need to give this drug via the intramuscular route as Mr. Granger may have difficulty swallowing
12. Which of the following would be a serious adverse effect from Mr. Granger’s warfarin that the nurse should be aware of?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Bleeding and CVA
C. Abdominal pain and high blood pressure
D. Dizziness and headache
13. Mr. Granger has also been prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What is the classification of this drug?
A. Antihypertensive
B. Diuretic
C. Anti-nausea
D. Antiplatelet
End of case #3
Case study #4
Mr. Jones, a 78-year-old man, is a resident at a long-term care facility. His wife, who continues to live in their family home, was having difficulty caring for him. She states that he wanders anxiously at all hours of the day and night and requires 24-hour care. She is very sad that he is not able to stay at their home, however, feels that it is the best decision for him.
Questions 14 – 16 refer to this case.
14. Mr. Jones is now receiving citalopram (Celexa). What is the classification of this drug?
A. benzodiazepine
B. analgesic
C. cholinesterase inhibitor
D. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
15. What is the most likely reason Mr. Jones is receiving citalopram?
A. Improve his appetite
B. Improve his sleep pattern
C. Reduce his pain
D. Reduce his anxiety
16. The nurse who is working with Mr. Jones knows that they must monitor him for which unwanted potential effects of citalopram?
A. Extrapyramidal side effects
B. Confusion and suicidal ideation
C. Contentment and improved appetite
D. Elation and sadness
End of case #3
Multiple-choice questions
Questions 17 – 75. Select the best answer for each question.
17. When considering medicating the older adult, which nursing rationale applies?
A. Give the lowest possible dose
B. There is a decreased chance of drug toxicity compared to younger adults
C. Crush all PO drugs to enhance compliance
D. Excretion of drugs is more effective than in younger adults
18. Who is responsible for performing the narcotic control count?
A. The charge nurse and a student nurse
B. Two nurses going off duty
C. The nurse and any other staff member present
D. Two nurses; one from the shift going off duty and one from the shift coming on duty
19. What does pharmacokinetics refer to?
A. Reactions between drugs and living systems
B. The study of bodily absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
C. The manufacturing of pharmaceuticals
D. The science of studying drug compositions
20. Of the following options, which route of drug administration has the fastest absorption rate?
A. PO
B. SC
C. Nebulizer
D. Topical
21. An appropriate physician’s order must always include which of the following?
A. Potential side effects
B. Dose
C. If to take on an empty or full stomach
D. All of the above
22. When “wasting” a portion of a dose of narcotic, who must the nurse have this witnessed by?
A. The pharmacist
B. Any other staff member on duty
C. The unit manager
D. A second qualified nurse
23. During your HS rounds, you notice that Mrs. Stall is extremely agitated. She is yelling out frequently and attempting to get out of bed without assistance. You review her orders and note that she does have several PRN orders. Which of the following nursing actions would be most appropriate for the nurse to do first?
A. Administer a PRN antipsychotic medication
B. Close the patient’s door after administering acetaminophen, so she doesn’t disturb the other patients
C. Administer a PRN anti-anxiety medication
D. Spend uninterrupted time listening to what is bothering the patient
24. Which of the following possible causes should be investigated when an older adult patient experiences postural hypotension?
A. Increased intake of vasodilator medications
B. Effects of psychotropic medications
C. Presence of diseases
D. All of the above
25. What is the first nursing intervention when suspecting a diabetic patient is hyperglycemic?
A. Administer insulin
B. Monitor vital signs
C. Obtain blood glucose level
D. Call the doctor
26. Which of the following would be a typical medication ordered in the treatment of emphysema?
A. Morphine
B. Loxapine
C. Salbutamol
D. Phenytoin
27. Which of the following medications is not typically prescribed to treat symptoms of dementia?
A. Lorazepam
B. Quetiapine
C. Risperidone
D. Captopril
28. Where does an LPN document a heparin dose?
A. Medication administration record
B. Controlled drug sheet
C. Daily communication binder
D. Patient progress notes
29. When an LPN is administering a neuroleptic drug to a patient for symptoms of psychosis, it is imperative for the nurse to assess for which of the following symptoms, because of possible devastating adverse effects of this drug:
A. Blurred vision
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Dystonia
D. All of the above
30. What are the side effect(s) of long-term prednisone therapy?
A. Facial rounding (moon face)
B. Diabetes
C. Thinning of the skin
D. All of the above
31. Which of the following information regarding ibuprofen is not true?
A. Reduces pain, inflammation and fever
B. May cause gastrointestinal bleeding
C. May cause epigastric distress
D. Used for moderate to severe pain
32. Mr. Holmes, a newly admitted patient, has a history of liver disease. In planning for his care, the LPN must consider that the liver disease may result in which of the following?
A. Increase in the excretion rate of a drug
B. Impaired ability to metabolize or detoxify drugs
C. Necessity to increase the dosage of a drug
D. Decrease in the rate of absorption
33. Mrs. Jensen has been prescribed oral nystatin. As her nurse, you know that this has likely been prescribed to treat her:
A. Abscessed tooth
B. Viral pneumonia
C. Arthritis pain
D. Oral thrush
34. Which of the following is true considering a medication administration record?
A. A record of bowel protocols
B. A record of all medications administered
C. A record of PRN medications only
D. Only signed by the doctor
35. Which is an example of a well written and complete doctor’s order?
A. Digoxin 125 mcg po
B. Warfarin at 6 pm
C. Multivitamin once daily
D. Amlodipine 10 mg po once daily
36. Today in Canada, most provinces have amended their nursing practice acts to include prescription of medications by which of the following health care providers?
A. Nurse Practitioner
B. Physician
C. Nurse Midwife
D. All of the above
37. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to lead to a medication error?
A. Checking the patient’s arm bracelet prior to administration of medication
B. Looking up an unfamiliar medication in the drug reference manual
C. Transcription of a drug order without including the medication route
D. Asking a colleague to verify a drug calculation
38. What can influence the absorption of topical drugs?
A. Drug concentration
B. Hydration of tissue
C. Size of affected area
D. All of the above
39. Which of the following drugs are classified as anxiolytic?
1. Lorazepam
2. Nitrogyclerin
3. Diazepam
4. Ramipril
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 3, 4
40. What is prednisone is classified as?
A. NSAID
B. Anti-infective
C. Analgesic
D. Anti-inflammatory
41. Which drug is commonly used in the treatment of symptoms for Parkinson’s patients?
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbidopa/levodopa
C. Furosemide
D. Coumadin
42. Which of the following is true concerning insulin?
A. Is always used to treat Type 1 Diabetes
B. Can be given orally
C. Is always used to treat Type 2 Diabetes
D. Is considered a hyperglycemic
43. Mrs. Smith has been ordered a narcotic for her fractured hip while awaiting transfer to the hospital from a long-term care facility. The nurse is aware that narcotics lead to all the following side effects except what?
A. Constipation
B. Respiration depression
C. Sedation effects
D. Cough exacerbation
44. During medication administration, the nurse is aware that all unscored tablets cannot be cut in half because of which of the following reasons?
A. Legally, the nurse is not permitted to cut tablet medications in half
B. Certification of this skill is required before the nurse is permitted to perform this action
C. The nurse knows that the potential for an incorrect dose is high using this approach
D. The physician has not written a medication order authorizing this action
45. Intramuscular injection is given via which route?
A. Parenteral route
B. Subcutaneous route
C. Epidermal route
D. Enteral route
46. How will the pharmacokinetics of a drug be altered if a patient ingests a drug on an empty stomach?
A. Absorbed more rapidly
B. Absorbed more slowly
C. Neutralized by pancreatic enzymes
D. Affected by enzymes in the colon
47. Patients taking sublingual nitrates for angina should be instructed to do which of the following?
A. Take a dose routinely at bedtime, then notify health care provider in the morning
B. Swallow medication for severe pain, then notify health care provider
C. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, times three, then notify health care provider if pain is unrelieved
D. Take one tablet every 2 to 3 minutes until relief is obtained, then notify health care provider
48. Discharge teaching for patients on nitrate therapy should include which of the following?
1. Increase caffeine in diet
2. Relaxation techniques
3. Proper storage of medications
4. Strenuous exercise program
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. All of the above
49. Your patient has just begun taking an ACE inhibitor. She reports feeling very dizzy when standing up and wonders if she should discontinue the medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
A. “You are having an adverse reaction. Stop taking the medication immediately.”
B. “Rise to a sitting or standing position slowly, this should help resolve it.”
C. “I will ask the doctor to come and assess you right away.”
D. “If you take half the pill, you will have a reduced dosage.”
50. The nurse is preparing a 76-year-old patient for discharge who was admitted with gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to salicylate therapy. While reviewing the discharge medication list, the patient states that she doesn’t understand why acetaminophen doesn’t work as well as the aspirin she had been taking. What is the best response from the nurse?
A. “Acetaminophen and aspirin are both chemically the same drug.”
B. “Acetaminophen is appropriate for minor pain only.”
C. “Acetaminophen does not help with the inflammatory discomfort.”
D. “A therapeutic blood level must be established with acetaminophen.”
51. Common sites used for subcutaneous medication administration include:
1. Upper arms
2. Abdomen
3. Inner aspects of the forearms
4. Anterior thighs
A. 1, 2, and 4
B. 2, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. All of the above
52. When administering lithium to a patient the nurse is aware that lithium
A. Can cause a serum increase in NA+ and water retention
B. Is used exclusively during the depressive stage of bipolar disorder
C. Has little risk of toxicity
D. Can cause Na+ depletion and dehydration
53. What is a common side effect of magnesium-based antacid preparations?
A. Heartburn
B. Rebound indigestion
C. Constipation
D. Diarrhea
54. What should you teach Mrs. Folk regarding her iron supplement intake?
A. She may experience clay-colored stools
B. She may experience frequent belching
C. She may experience constipation
D. She may experience anemia
55. Mr. Thompson was given a hypnotic agent at 2100. During your rounds at 0200, you discover him attempting to get out of bed without assistance and he has removed his gown. He states he is getting up to make breakfast for his family. What type of medication effect is he exhibiting?
A. Lethargy
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Paradoxical effect
D. Blood dyscrasia
56. Quetiapine can be accurately referred to as which of the following?
1. Neuroleptic
2. Antipsychotic
3. Major tranquilizer
4. Chemical restraint
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. All of the above
57. Medications used to promote intestinal motility will decrease the risk of constipation in the elderly. All of the following medications are used to promote elimination from the bowels except which one?
A. Sennosides
B. Loperamide
C. Lactulose
D. Psyllium
58. A nurse is given the following doctor’s order: “warfarin 3.5 mg PO now”. The medication cart only has 2 mg scored tabs and 5 mg scored tabs and hospital pharmacy is now closed. How should the nurse proceed?
A. Collaborate with the RN and then call the doctor to advise
B. Delay giving the medication until the morning when the proper dose is available
C. Give two 2 mg tabs as this is the closest you have available in your med cart
D. Give half of a 5 mg tab, and half of a 2 mg tab
59. A medication is received from pharmacy and it is marked that each dose is 0.5g. What is an equivalent dose?
A. 5000 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 50 mg
D. 5 mg
60. A nurse is given the following doctor’s order: “chlordiazepoxide 20 mg PO QID X 3 days”. Chlordiazepoxide is provided from the pharmacy in 5 mg tablets. How many tablets will be required to complete the entire prescribed order?
A. 12
B. 20
C. 48
D. 100
61. A nurse is given the following doctor’s order: “Humulin R 5 units and Humulin N 8 units SUBQ q am”. How should the nurse give this dose?
A. Give the Humulin R 5 units and Humulin N 8 units together when breakfast arrives, just before eating.
B. Give the Humulin R 5 units at 0700 and the Humulin N 8 units when breakfast arrives, just before eating.
C. Give the Humulin R 5 units and Humulin N 8 units together when an hour after eating breakfast.
D. Give the Humulin R 5 units and Humulin N 8 units together at 0700, about an hour before breakfast.
62. The doctor’s orders request that a patient is given an extremely large dose of narcotic analgesic for pain. The patient admits that he is in severe pain. The nurse, after completing a pain assessment, gives the ordered dose of analgesic. Approximately 30 minutes later, the nurse returns to assess the pain again and notice that the patient is cyanotic and not breathing. The nurse immediately calls for help. After the patient is stabilized, it is determined that he was given too much analgesic. The nurse advises that they only gave what was ordered. Who is ultimately responsible for the patient receiving too much analgesic?
A. The patient as he advised he was in severe pain
B. The doctor as he/she wrote the order
C. The RN because he/she is in charge
D. The LPN because he/she gave it
63. When is the correct time to sign medication documentation thereby indicating that a drug was given?
A. Immediately prior to pouring the medication
B. Immediately after pouring the medication
C. Immediately prior to giving the medication
D. Immediately after giving the medication
64. Which of the following are the most desirable characteristics in an analgesic?
A. Rapid onset; lack of severe side effects; oral and parenteral use
B. Slow onset; lack of severe side effects; parenteral and SUBQ use
C. Euphoria; rapid onset; mild-moderate side effects
D. Gradual onset; mild side effects; tablet and liquid form
65. Which of the following drugs may be accurately classified as antipyretics?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Dimenhydrinate
C. Meperidine
D. Morphine
66. Mr. Louis has been prescribed nitroglycerin 0.6 mg s/l PRN. Which of the following are true in regards to this drug?
A. This drug should be repeated as many times as needed; if no relief after 30 minutes, the physician should be notified
B. The action of this drug is to slow and strengthen the heartbeat
C. This drug dilates the walls of the arteries so that the heart receives more blood and more oxygen
D. This drug raises blood pressure by causing the blood vessels to contract
67. A nurse is about to administer a benzodiazepine to a client in the hospital before the performance of an invasive diagnostic procedure. What action should the nurse prioritize before administration of the drug?
A. Auscultate the client’s lungs and set up pulse oximetry monitoring.
B. Close the blinds and ensure appropriate room temperature for the client.
C. Help the client out of bed to the bathroom and encourage the client to void.
D. Ask all visitors to leave the room and remain in the waiting area.
68. The nurse is caring for a resident in a long-term care facility with a history of an anxiety disorder. The client is receiving an anxiolytic t.i.d. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
A. Suicidal ideation
B. Level of consciousness
C. Sleep quality
D. Mucous membrane integrity
69. After seeking care for persistent exhaustion and sadness, a client has been diagnosed with depression. The nurse understands that which factors have a possible connection to depression?
1. Serotonin deficiency
2. Excessive cortisol levels
3. High levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone and thyroxine
4. Dopamine deficiency
A. 3 and 4
B. 1 and 4
C. 1 only
D. All of the above
70. The nurse is caring for a young female client who is 5 weeks pregnant. What statement made by the nurse about the use of antidepressants during pregnancy is most accurate?
A. “Antidepressants are used very cautiously during pregnancy and only when benefit outweighs risk.”
B. “Antidepressants are contraindicated and must be discontinued if pregnancy occurs.”
C. “Antidepressants are contraindicated but often alternative treatments are just as effective at treating depression.”
D. “Most antidepressants are safe during pregnancy so you likely have nothing to be concerned about.”
71. The nurse is caring for a client who would like to start taking oral contraceptives. What aspect of this client’s health history should the nurse prioritize for follow-up?
A. The client’s body mass index indicated she is underweight
B. The client is a social drinker
C. The client takes NSAIDs for the treatment of headaches and joint pain
D. The client smokes ½ pack of cigarettes daily
72. A 32-year-old female client has been diagnosed with an infection and has been prescribed an antibiotic. This client is also on oral contraceptives. What is a priority nursing action?
A. Instruct the client to stop taking her oral contraceptive while on the antibiotic as they are contraindicated.
B. Inform the client that the antibiotics may make her oral contraceptives less effective and she should supplement with an alternative form of birth control.
C. Instruct the client to take double the dose of the oral contraceptive as the antibiotic will make it less effective.
D. Inform the client that the oral contraceptives will make the antibiotic less effective and she should take double the dose of the antibiotic to achieve appropriate drug blood levels.
73. When the nurse cares for a client receiving an antibiotic, what instructions should the nurse provide no matter what medication is prescribed?
1. Drink plenty of fluids to avoid kidney damage.
2. Take all medications as prescribed until all of the medication is gone.
3. Take all antibiotic with food to avoid gastrointestinal (GI) upset.
4. Report difficulty breathing, severe headache, or changes in urine output.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4
74. A client with breast cancer will have radiation therapy and then begin chemotherapy. Drug therapy will consist of a combination of several different medications. What should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan concerning the drug therapy?
1. Avoid large crowds and public places whenever possible
2. Stay in bed 2 days after each administration
3. Take an antiemetics when feeling nauseous
4. Avoid bathing or submerging in water immediately after treatment
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 4
75. The nurse has taught a client to self-administer a topical nasal decongestant. What statement should the nurse follow up with further education?
A. “I’ll put the tip of the bottle about half an inch into my nostril.”
B. “I’ll squeeze the bottle firmly to get all the medication up into my sinuses.”
C. “I’ll sit upright when I give myself the drug.”
D. “I won’t take the drug if I’ve got a sore inside my nose.”
End of multiple-choice questions
True or False
Questions 76 – 100. Indicate if the following statements are true or false
76. Benzodiazepines can be used to treat anxiety.
A. True
B. False
77. CNS depressants should not be taken with alcohol as this as this may cause further depression of the central nervous system.
A. True
B. False
78. Antibiotics are designed to help treat some of the distressing signs and symptoms of an infection, like fever, lethargy and swelling.
A. True
B. False
79. Drugs ending in -pril, such as captopril, ramipril, and quinapril, are designed to help control inflammation.
A. True
B. False
80. Most drug therapies for hypertension are designed to lower high blood pressure rather than address the underlying cause of the condition.
A. True
B. False
81. It is dangerous for a patient to take digoxin if their heart rate is above 90 beats per minute.
A. True
B. False
82. Aspirin is a common medication that can affect a patient’s ability to clot.
A. True
B. False
83. Antiplatelet agents decrease the formation of the platelet plug by decreasing the responsiveness of the platelets to stick and aggregate on a vessel wall.
A. True
B. False
84. Most types of anemia should be treated with iron supplements.
A. True
B. False
85. Loop diuretics are sometimes used when a patient has severe peripheral edema or respiratory edema.
A. True
B. False
86. Direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxants act directly on the muscle to prevent muscle contraction.
A. True
B. False
87. Opioids and narcotics describe two different drug classes.
A. True
B. False
88. Oral antidiabetic agents include glyburide, metformin, and insulin.
A. True
B. False
89. Nitrates, beta-blockers, and calcium-channel blockers are all used to control angina.
A. True
B. False
90. When taking multiple inhaled medications, it is important to take the inhaled steroid before the inhaled bronchodilator.
A. True
B. False
91. A patient who has difficulty compressing an inhaler and inhaling at the same time would benefit from a spacer.
A. True
B. False
92. Because most antacids, like Tums, are over the counter medications there are minimal to no side effects and people can take them however they like.
A. True
B. False
93. Laxatives are indicated for long-term use in patients who have frequent bouts of constipation.
A. True
B. False
94. A pa
